Mission Helicopter-65E (MH-65E) Standardization Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In Unusual Attitude Recovery, what is the third action?
• Staying at or below which speed in 1 G flight will prevent Retreating Blade Stall?
• Before initiating practice single engine maneuvers using the TRNG switch, verify that the bleed air HEAT switch is secured.
• Which label is used to indicate an operating procedure that is essential to emphasize?
• To preclude use of the TRNG switch back to the flight position, the PFD Torque Display must be less than ________%.
• What action is required to close the 2000 psi isolation valve?
• In forward flight above 80 KIAS, the torque limit when the AFCS is coupled to the FD is:
• Engine Post Shutdown Fire: If high TOT still evident after 10 seconds, what action?
• If power loss to the No. 2 DC bus short or SEC HYD circuit breaker occurs, what are the resulting states of the T/R isolation valve and the 2,000 psi isolation valve?
• A Level _______ FADEC (redundancy failure) can be accessed by selecting the Engine Faults page on the CDU.
• A Level _____ FADEC (redundancy failure) can be accessed by selecting the Engine Faults page on the CDU.
• What is the maximum rotor speed for use of the rotor brake?
• The 2000 psi isolation valve remains OPEN unless what occurs?
• For the High Hover Practice Single Engine maneuver, what is the required surface condition?
• Engine Fire Ondeck (both engines): Which sequence correctly completes this procedure?
• When inadvertently entering IMC, what should you do to ensure situational awareness is regained quickly?
• Hatch movement speeds (forward and sideward).
• TRUE/FALSE: The parking brake system allows for gradual braking pressure to be applied.
• Which pair describes the correct hover attitude?
• Which option is NOT listed as a critical phase of flight?
• Which of the following are normal duties typically assigned, but not limited to the copilot?
• Which Emergency Procedure is associated with hydraulic warnings such as PRI/SEC HYD PRESSURE indications on the EICAS page or PRI SERVO P / SEC SERVO P warnings?
• Using NVGs, depth perception is reduced at distances less than how many feet and greater than how many feet?
• Which maneuver is most likely to encounter ULY during transitions from crosswind to downwind?
• During Running Takeoff, increase the collective to what range of percent torque?
• Under normal operation, the 2000 psi isolation valve remains in what state?
• During aggressive maneuvers, which indicator combination may accompany the LIMIT light and SERVO LIMIT caution on the EICAS page?
• Which warning will illuminate on the EICAS page in the event of a loss of hydraulic pressure to either system or with a jammed rotor distributor valve on any of the main or tail flight control servos?
• For the High Hover Practice Single Engine maneuver, what NR value is specified?
• Retreating blade stall onset is recognized by either a four per revolution vibration or illumination of which light?
• A Level FADEC _______ failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a GOV LVL 1 caution when the FADEC control switch is in the IDLE or OFF position.
• Pattern altitude for Normal Approach is what altitude in feet AGL or higher?
• During Retreating Blade Stall, the aircraft experiences roll in which direction?
• Use of HOV AUG is limited to what altitude (AGL/AWL)?
• Which four forces act on a helicopter after it leaves the ground?
• A fully charged battery will power the DC system for approximately 30 minutes. However, which condition may extend the battery life beyond 30 minutes?
• The ULY factor which includes main rotor vortices being shed directly into the vertical fin/fenestron is called:
• Which two words are used to indicate a mandatory requirement?
• Which Emergency Procedure name corresponds to engine oil pressure issues?
• Internal Fire (Cabin, Electrical, and/or Avionics): Which is the first corrective action?
• If a TGB CHIP warning illuminates, what is the corrective action?
• During preflight, the engine oil level should be between the __ and __ lines on the sight glass if checking within 15 minutes of shutdown.
• Above what altitude must both boost pumps be on to prevent feed tank failure?
• Returning the TRNG switch back to the flight position should be completed with the PFD Torque Display less than what percent and NR stable at which RPM?
• The ______ warning will illuminate on the EICAS page in the event of a loss of hydraulic pressure to either system or with a jammed rotor distributor valve on any of the main or tail flight control servos.
• During the onset of retreating blade stall, the ________ light illuminates to warn of excessive blade loading.
• For the Transition Point on Normal Approach, approximately how many feet straightaway?
• GOV LVL 1 caution is shown on EICAS when FADEC control switch is IDLE or OFF for Level 1 FADEC.
• At about what airspeed does the helicopter go through effective translational lift (ETL)?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between loss of hydraulic pressure and the SERVO JAM warning?
• Fuel quantity is determined at nose level attitude. Which measure is used?
• In a vortex ring state condition, the rotor tip vortices recirculate through the rotor disk and what happens to the induced flow into the main rotor?
• What is the first Bold Face step in the Big 4 procedures?
• How many minutes after periods must you wait?
• What color does the fuel quantity tape on a side turn when it drops to 100 lbs?
• Fire extinguishing capability is not provided for which component?
• TRUE/FALSE: The First Limit (N1, TOT or Torque) is displayed on the right corner of the PFD.
• Which component malfunction is associated with excessive medium frequency vibrations?
• Which statement best defines LAND/DITCH IMMEDIATELY?
• During a HOGE single engine maneuver, after moving TRNG to IDLE 1 and the PF failing to reduce collective with NR droop to 320 RPM, the FADEC logic will ensure the idled engine provides power up to the ____.
• In a LAND/DITCH IMMEDIATELY maneuver, which action is performed first?
• Below what altitude in feet AGL should you sideslip as required to maintain required takeoff alignment?
• During dynamic rollover the helicopter exceeds its ______.
• Which action focuses on scanning flight instruments to maintain control during IMC?
• Which Emergency Procedure name corresponds to GOV LVL 2 caution illuminated?
• TRUE/FALSE: When operating the heat system, ensure all lower duct heat air nozzles are completely open. Any other configuration may cause illumination of the HEATER O/HEAT warning light.
• A fully charged battery will power the DC system for approximately how long?
• An approach may be successfully executed from any position prior to which point?
• The FD system imposes torque limitations when the AFCS is coupled to the FD system.
• After recovery from Retreating Blade Stall, further flight is described as which?
• The FADEC is designed to cancel the Training Mode under which condition(s)?
• What is the effect of vortex ring state on the helicopter's vertical rate of descent?
• Red X on the SFI attitude, altitude, or heading display indicates which Emergency Procedure?
• During Running Takeoff, slight which cyclic may be required to maintain a level attitude and runway alignment?
• Bleed air leak can indicate a fire hazard; which warning light is associated with this condition?
• In hover mode, the wind information can be updated via CDU INDEX Progress page or reflect winds captured when decelerating through which KIAS?
• TRUE/FALSE: The First Limit (N1, TOT or Torque) is displayed on the right corner of the PFD.
• Vortex ring state descent can initiate at 1000 to 2300 fpm and rapidly build to 5000 fpm.
• Which of the following is NOT listed under weight-limited maneuvers for aircraft above 9,200 lbs?
• As bank angle is applied to the aircraft in level flight, the VNE speed becomes what?
• Which Emergency Procedure name corresponds to GOV LVL 1 caution illuminated?
• When using DC external power for the start, what must be true about the BATT RLY 2 OPEN light?
• If the affected circuit breaker is popped, which action should be attempted?
• TRUE/FALSE: Once an engine is shutdown by the DECU via the BIM, overspeed protection is automatically inhibited on the second engine.
• No person shall engage in any conversation or other activity that could distract or interfere with a flight crewmember properly conducting their assigned duties during critical phases of flight. Critical phases of flight include but are not limited to: 1. ALL GROUND OPERATIONS INVOLVING AIRCRAFT MOVEMENT 2. TAKEOFF, APPROACH, AND LANDING 3. IMMEDIATELY PRIOR TO LEVEL OFF DURING CLIMB/DESCENT UNDER IFR 4. HOVER OPERATIONS 5. BELOW 300 FEET AGL/AGL DURING APPROACH OR DEPARTURE FROM A HOVER 6. AS DIRECTED BY THE PIC
• The safety feature built into the training switch FADEC logic ensures that the idled engine will provide power up to the actual ______ stop in the event of NR mismanagement.
• What is the first item in the abbreviated Takeoff Checklist?
• TRUE/FALSE: Overspeed protection remains active on the second engine after the first engine is shut down by BIM.
• The AFCS PITCH and ROLL channels are redundantly powered from which DC buses?
• Tail rotor malfunction landings are to be conducted under which VMC condition?
• What is an alternative method to recovering from vortex ring state?
• TRUE/FALSE: Operating the HF radio in high power may result in disengagement of the AFCS yaw channel.
• From which viewpoint is the main rotor rotation described as clockwise?
• Low Hover Single Engine maneuvers should be performed from a hover altitude not exceeding how many feet RADALT?
• What is the final action in the Emergency Egress sequence?
• What is the correct interpretation of the instruction: Pull affected circuit breaker, wait 15 seconds, and reset affected circuit breaker?
• Angle of Attack: The angle measure between the ______ and the chord line.
• What is the effect of moving the emergency electrical cutoff to CUTOFF on the 2000 psi isolation valve?
• The transition point for a single engine minimum speed landing includes which AGL height?
• Use of TRK is limited to greater than how many KIAS?
• The 100 percent DC current limitation does not apply during which periods?
• What is the maximum gross weight for flight operations, including running takeoffs, expressed in pounds?
• Which option correctly describes rotor engagement limits?
• Which Emergency Procedure should be followed when hydraulic indicators show abnormal pressure or servo warnings?
• Which instrument panel lights indicate maximum acceleration under various flight conditions?
• Which statement best matches the meaning of LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE?
• During elevated pad/pinnacle approaches, the pilot tends to perceive the aircraft as which two conditions during the initial phase?
• With one engine operating and START R.BK switch activated, the rotor brake may remain on for how many minutes?
• If N1 and/or TOT is the power limiting factor below 80 KIAS, which limits may be applied?
• What is the maximum touchdown sink rate (ft/min) at a maximum gross weight of 8900 lb?
• The FADEC will automatically shut the engine down during start if TOT exceeds what temperature?
• In the Ondeck Emergency Shutdown Procedure, what is the third action?
• If an actual low fluid condition exists, placing the gear handle to the down position before completing the appropriate emergency procedure will result in which condition?
• Level 3 FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution along with illumination of which indicator?
• WARNING: Flight conditions causing vortex ring state should be avoided at which altitude because considerable altitude may be lost before recognition and recovery?
• Level 3 FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution along with illumination of which light?
• During hover and transition flight below 80 KIAS, the torque limitation is set at __% torque.
• Retreating Blade Stall occurs when the pitch on the retreating blade cannot compensate for what?
• In the normal hover attitude with a 4-degree nose-up angle, indicated fuel is approximately what percent less than actual fuel?
• Which statement best describes the correct procedure for spike suppression when starting with external power?
• Which vibration level is immediately apparent to experienced aircrew, with the sole preoccupation of reducing vibration?
• For the High Hover Practice Single Engine maneuver, the wind must be within how many degrees of the nose?
• VNE is increased or reduced by maneuvers that increase G loading?
• Retreating blade stall is influenced by blade loading, specifically the high blade loading (G loading) factor.
• Which vibration level would not be apparent to experienced aircrew unless attention is directed to them?
• What is the Max Power Off rotor RPM?
• In addition to N1 and NR, which two factors should be checked to confirm expected performance and flight characteristics?
• Use of ASPD is limited to greater than __________ KIAS.
• In extreme environments, which parameters may be the limiting factor and should be monitored on the EICAS page?
• Maximum Cabin Sliding Door Speed – Door removed?
• Takeoff and landing on slopes greater than how many degrees?
• In ground effect, induced flow velocities are ______, and as a result AOA is ______.
• Which symptom describes engine oil pressure less than 25 psi?
• The Static Bypass Switch for the PILOT'S/NO. 2 static system is located on which panel?
• In any emergency, what is the overriding consideration?
• Which of the following describes the wind requirement for the High Hover training switch manipulation?
• Which indicator illuminates red along with FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL during Level 3 FADEC failure?
• After confirming an engine fire inflight on the affected engine, what is the next required action?
• Aural Warnings: which statements are true about NR thresholds?
• A Level 2 FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a ____________________ caution.
• To override FD torque limitations, depress the ____ switch on the collective and apply the ____ power required for the maneuver.
• What is the minimum oil temperature required before advancing the FCS past idle?
• Aircrew shall inform the PIC prior to disconnecting from ____________________ and after reconnecting to ____________________.
• Retraction of the landing gear will only take place if the nosewheel is centered and all oleo struts are fully extended.
• During forward flight above 80 KIAS, when the AFCS is coupled to the FD system, what torque limit is applied?
• During Retreating Blade Stall, the pitch of the aircraft changes in which direction?
• After three consecutive failed starts, what must be secured before attempting a fourth start?
• ACTUAL SELECTED OEI STOP refers to the power limit up to which the idled engine can provide power.
• This may result in the power required to hover ______ the limits of the aircraft.
• In the Land/Ditch Immediately procedure, which action is the sixth step?
• TRUE/FALSE: NR will not exceed 320 RPM in Training Mode until the collective is reduced below the good engine topping.
• During hover and transition below 80 KIAS, torque limit is what percent?
• What action should be taken if severe vibrations and/or drastically altered flight characteristics occur?
• What is the minimum cooling period between rotor brake applications?
• Which bus remains powered when the Emergency Electrical Cutoff Switch is OFF?
• The Static Bypass Switch for the PILOT'S/NO. 2 static system is located on the Avionics Rack Panel.
• The 2000 psi isolation valve is fail safe _______, and remains _______ unless an isolation occurs.
• Which Emergency Procedure is activated when there is loss of transmit and/or receive capability from one crew station and loss of normal digital ICS functions from that station?
• TRUE/FALSE: Any vibration considered abnormal shall be recorded in ALMIS.
• Which term is defined as executing a landing or ditching without delay due to the seriousness of the malfunction?
• Which step is part of the recovery sequence from vortex ring state?
• In vortex ring state, when collective is raised, which statement about rotor disk portions is accurate?
• If operating above 8000 ft MSL, both boost pumps shall be on to prevent a feed tank failure. What altitude triggers this requirement?
• During transition to forward flight, what is the target speed to accelerate to?
• What is the first item in the abbreviated Level Off checklist?
• What are the colors for caution range and warning range of the data display label and perimeter?
• What does ICS stand for in aviation crew communications?
• What is the second Bold Face step in the Big 4?
• Under HIPSARM, for how many continuous minutes can AEO operations above MCP be conducted up to MTOP after 5 minutes?
• Which option best describes the alternate static valve operation?
• Which of the following is a flight regime more susceptible to encountering ULY when turning from crosswind to downwind?
• Which phrase should be communicated when inadvertent IMC occurs?
• Operating the HF radio at high power may cause fluctuations in RADALT indications.
• Which cockpit display page should be used to monitor the limiting engine parameter in extreme environments?
• Use of HDG is limited to greater than how many KIAS?
• When both FUEL FILT 1 and FUEL FILT 2 caution lights illuminate, what corrective action is required?
• During transition to forward flight, after ETL, the purpose of adjusting attitude to 8-10 degrees nose down is to accelerate to which speed?
• Which option is not part of the corrective actions for inadvertent IMC?
• Which of the following is a factor contributing to retreating blade stall?
• During preflight, the engine oil level should be between which two marks on the sight glass when checked within 15 minutes of shutdown?
• Use of GA is limited to greater than how many feet AGL/AWL?
• In conventional labeling, No. 1 corresponds to which side?
• Display of the ______ warning light may indicate a fire hazard due to a bleed air leak.
• System Manager partitions are contained in which MFDs?
• In the normal hover attitude (4 degree nose up), indicated fuel is approximately _____% less than actual fuel.
• Which page is used to diagnose warnings: Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) Page?
• Without a determination that a sufficient power margin of at least ______ percent is available, maneuvers become very demanding and power fluctuations required by on scene conditions may exceed aircraft limitations.
• If the collective is lowered, what happens to the rate of descent?
• At an airspeed of 100 KIAS, an angle of bank of 50 degrees has exceeded a limit.
• ____ and _____ components are labeled conventionally, No. 1 for the left side and No. 2 for the right side.
• No fire extinguishing capability is provided for which compartment?
• The ____________________ is responsible for the safe, orderly, efficient, and effective performance of the aircraft, aircrew, and passengers during the entire mission.
• The ____________________ is responsible for the movement and maneuvering of the aircraft via the flight controls with reference to either visual or instrument information.
• The transformer rectifier providing emergency DC power to Battery Bus is powered from which AC system?
• Aural Warnings: NR less than or equal to _______ RPM.
• A short in the Main DC Bus would cause which two lights to illuminate?
• In an extremis safety scenario, the PM should verbalize the control inputs and hazardous condition.
• Dynamic rollover occurs when excessive lateral angular momentum is created around a pivot point.
• If engine fire persists after initial actions, what action is required?
• Activation of the ELT after landing indicates that further flight shall not be attempted until maintenance personnel have completed necessary inspections. True or False?
• The 2000 psi isolation valve is rated at what pressure?
• In a dual DC generator failure, the tail rotor cannot power either main DC bus with which switches secured?
• What term describes the rearward, retarding force due to disruption of airflow by the rotor, fuselage, and other protruding objects?
• Which item is NOT part of the 200 ft Checklist?
• Level _____, or major FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution along with illumination of the red engine status light.
• Which term describes the combined load of the aircraft itself, the crew, the fuel, and the cargo or baggage, pulling the aircraft downward due to gravity?
• After recognizing inadvertent IMC, which action should be performed second?
• TRUE/FALSE: Once an engine is shutdown by the DECU via the BIM, overspeed protection is automatically inhibited on the second engine.
• When the cargo hook is installed, what should be done with the landing gear?
• Rotor wash velocity is greatest at which gross weight condition?
• Induced drag is generated by the airflow circulation around the rotor blade as it creates ______.
• After securing the FCS and Boost Pumps following three consecutive failed starts, how long must you wait before attempting a fourth start?
• Which label indicates operating procedures that could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed?
• What is the maximum braking time in seconds?
• In a No Hover Landing, the decision to terminate to the surface is based on which combination?
• Under a low fluid condition, what happens if the gear handle is placed to the down position before completing the emergency procedure?
• A qualified ________ or ________ shall perform a walk around inspection prior to flight.
• Except for the high hover and low hover procedure, what is the minimum airspeed required to manipulate the training switch?
• Which statement about dynamic rollover is true?
• With the START PROTECTION switch in the ON position, BATT RLY switches ON, and DC external power applied, the _______ light will extinguish indicating parallel operation.
• When G loading the rotor disk, a ______ per revolution vibration is the indicator the stall region is large enough to require the retreating blade to compensate for lack of lift.
• The ULY factor which occurs while the aircraft decelerates through translational lift results in increased power required to establish a hover is called:
• TRUE/FALSE: Operating the HF radio in high power may result in fluctuations in RADALT indications.
• Aircrew shall not use the _______ if a Level 1 FADEC failure is noted.
• Which switch on the collective must be depressed to override FD torque limitations?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the parameters to be established during inadvertent IMC?
• What is the first step when a suspected MGB fire is observed?
• In Engine Compartment Fire Inflight, if fire is confirmed on the affected engine, which action is performed first?
• If an actual low fluid condition exists, placing the gear handle to the down position before completing the appropriate emergency procedure will result in ____________.
• When does the PICs responsibility and authority for any mission terminate?
• The maximum number of consecutive starter engagements allowed is which of the following?
• During the engine rinse, the decrease in N1 must not exceed what percent, and TOT must decrease by at least how many °C?
• To prevent feed tank failure at high altitude, which action should you perform?
• What percentage of additional torque is required for maneuvering and hovering with a left crosswind?
• During a single engine minimum speed landing, what is the target KIAS range for the transition point?
• The maximum speed for abrupt cyclic movement is greater than how many KIAS?
• Which of the following is NOT listed under weight-limited maneuvers for aircraft above 8,900 lbs?
• During cruise flight, above which indicated airspeed (KIAS) should the aircraft be?
• Minimum cooling cycle between cranking periods?
• Excessive medium frequency vibration could be caused by a/an _______________________ or improperly mounted equipment.
• What does RBS stand for?
• Operation of the Nr HI system greatly ______ tail rotor authority.
• The ULY factor described as winds which increase the induced airflow through the fenestron, reducing tail rotor blade angle of attack, and resulting in reduced tail rotor thrust is called:
• Descent in vortex ring state can begin around 1000 to 2300 fpm and can rapidly reach about 5000 fpm.
• For an uncommanded left yaw, which corrective action is listed as the third step?
• NR HI mode is used during hover flight, single engine operations, and other demanding low speed maneuvers as it provides a greater margin for NR droop as well as which benefit?
• When using the training switch, the idled engine spools down to ____ RPM N2 at a preprogrammed rate.
• Which condition triggers the SERVO JAM warning on the EICAS page?
• The main gearbox and engines share the same overtemp warning.
• The alternate static valve switching to internal cabin pressure helps to maintain accurate indications during icing conditions.
• Smoke and Fume Elimination: Which two steps are performed first?
• The slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor is 10 degrees. With ESS installed, avoid which type of landings due to minimal ground clearance?
• The ULY factor described as the relationship between collective application and aircraft yaw is called:
• If BATT TEMP is not present and the SFI FAULT light is illuminated with smoke from the radome, what corrective action is required?
• Where is the aircrew member qualified for external cargo operations seated during external cargo missions?
• Low frequency vibrations typically manifest as a one per revolution and originate from the main rotor system.
• Maximum Sideward Flight is what speed?
• TRUE/FALSE: The parking brake system allows for gradual braking pressure to be applied.
• Which condition describes a pedal force up to 70 pounds?
• Which phrase best completes the statement: "Failure of the left forward ejector, aft cell ejector or both boost pumps will result in trapped fuel and the only indication to the aircrew will be illumination of the corresponding ________ warning on the EICAS page"?
• In vortex ring state, if the collective is lowered, the rate of descent will continue to
• What is the maximum unrestricted gross weight, expressed in pounds?
• There will be no aural warning if the Flight Director becomes uncoupled from the AFCS.
• The emergency electrical cutoff switch to CUTOFF removes power from which component?
• Failure of the left forward ejector, aft cell ejector, or both boost pumps will result in trapped fuel and the only indication to the aircrew will be the illumination of which warning on the EICAS page?
• The wind direction for Low Hover Single Engine maneuvers must be within how many degrees of the nose?
• When using the TRNG switch, the idled engine spools down to ____ RPM N2 at a preprogrammed rate and the good engine will increase power up to approximately ____% torque.
• Which word is used to indicate an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment?
• Which of the following is a valid item from the abbreviated Level Off checklist?
• During forward flight above 80 KIAS, what torque value is used as the torque limit when AFCS is coupled to the FD system?
• Which statement about copilot duties is correct?
• Normally the NR switch should not be in the HI position above which airspeed?
• Vy is valid for single or dual engine configurations.
• Which indicators on the hydraulic sight gauge denote the hydraulic reservoir is at the proper level?
• Which bus is not affected when placing the Emergency Electrical Cutoff Switch to OFF?
• TRUE/FALSE: Placing the emergency electrical cutoff switch to CUTOFF removes power to the 2000 psi isolation valve.
• If no landing criteria exist, which statement is accurate regarding continuing the mission?
• If the engine fire is no longer evident, what should be done?
• Before committing to forward flight, which two indications should be checked on EICAS and PFD?
• Operating the ______ radio in high power may result in Electromagnetic Interference (EMI).
• When the fuel quantity on an individual side drops to how many pounds, the respective fuel quantity and tape will turn yellow?
• AFCS heading hold operates only below what KIAS with a rate of turn less than how many degrees per second?
• True/False: Selecting the exact approach angle and closure rate is left to the judgment of the pilot depending on specific operational requirements.
• TRUE/FALSE: Operating the HF radio in high power may result in disengagement of the AFCS yaw channel.
• Activation of the ELT and/or aircraft emergency light system illumination after landing may indicate a landing that exceeded what fpm rate of descent?
• Which Emergency Procedure name corresponds to FADEC failure?
• During maneuvers with rapid control inputs at high angle of bank, what may occur momentarily after, or concurrently with, the LIMIT light, SERVO LIMIT caution message on the EICAS page and audio tone?
• In the Red Book instruction, which word completes the directive: The aircrew member reading the Red Book should first read the title to confirm the correct procedure?
• When speed is less than 110 KIAS, the bank angle limit is greater than how many degrees?
• If electrical or avionics fire persists, which action should be taken?
• The statement 'WHEELS Confirmed Down is accomplished by the PF or the PM' is true or false.
• The wind requirement type for the High Hover training switch manipulation is which?
• Which of the following is a valid partial sequence for inadvertent IMC recovery?
• What is the maximum indicated airspeed with float bags armed or inflated?
• In the case of a shorted component, the respective line contactor and battery relay will deenergize and illuminate the associated battery relay OPEN light and generator FAIL light. Which component is shorted?
• Transition flight covers speeds from 0 up to ______ KIAS.
• Which statement is true regarding the 2,000 psi isolation when it is deenergized OPEN?
• Also known as blade pitch angle, the ______ is the angle between the chord line of a blade and the rotor hub.
• Which term means extended flight is not recommended, with the landing site and flight duration at the PIC's discretion?
• Which label is used to emphasize essential operating procedures?
• For 110 KIAS, the bank angle limit is greater than how many degrees?
• A Level 1 FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a _______ caution when the FADEC control switch is in the IDLE or OFF position.
• TRUE/FALSE: The PM should guard the primary flight controls as required to allow monitoring of the PF flight control inputs and be prepared to assist in aircraft control or to take over the flight controls if the situation dictates.
• During a Level 3 FADEC Failure, fuel flow on the affected engine will be frozen at its present value.
• Operation of the HF radio presents a radiation hazard to personnel within how many feet of the HF antenna?
• The maximum permissible hook load weight is which of the following pounds?
• Which ULY factor is described as winds that increase induced airflow through the fenestron, reducing tail rotor blade angle of attack, and reducing tail rotor thrust?
• Fill in the blanks: the only required checklists are the abbreviated _________ and _____________.
• Which Bold Face item is NOT part of the Big 4 steps?
• If oil pressure exceeds 128 psi during start, what action is required?
• The AFCS YAW and COLLECTIVE channels are powered only from which DC bus?
• Inadvertent IMC corrective action: what is the initial action to take?
• AEO stands for which phrase?
• What is the fourth item in the 200 ft Checklist?
• Pattern altitude for Normal Approach is at least how many feet AGL?
• Maximum airspeed with Float Bags Armed or Inflated is __________ KIAS.
• In the Emergency Egress sequence, what is the fourth action?
• With the START PROTECTION switch in the ON position, BATT RLY switches ON, and DC external power applied, the which light will extinguish indicating parallel operation?
• At what nose-up attitude do the tail skid and main landing gear contact the surface simultaneously?
• Which statement about HF power and RADALT stability is correct?
• What is the second item in the 200 ft Checklist?
• During the Normal Pattern, how many feet downwind of the abeam should you turn to final?
• After the first engine start, while the MFDs are operating, the CDU TDL pages shall be used as the primary reference for the second engine start.
• For the High Hover Practice Single Engine maneuver, what is the minimum relative wind in knots?
• TRUE/FALSE: Once an engine is shut down by the DECU via the BIM, overspeed protection is automatically inhibited on the second engine.
• Which condition is necessary for landing gear retraction to occur?
• NR HI mode is described as providing greater margin for NR droop and which other capability?
• Approximately how many feet straightaway are used at the Transition Point on Normal Approach?
• TRUE/FALSE: When the onset of retreating blade stall is detected, an increase of collective is the easiest and quickest way to recover.
• Rotor engagement/disengagement wind limits are described by which of the following options?
• Hydraulic reservoir fluid level should be approximately which indicators on the sight gauge?
• Further action to recover from retreating blade stall may be required. This includes: 1 REDUCING airspeed, 2 REDUCING the severity of the maneuver (i.e. rolling out), 3 ensuring the aircraft is in trim.
• As density altitude increases, the engines operate ______ efficiently due to the less dense air.
• Which statement best describes the relationship between PM and PF during critical phases?
• During hovering flight, a single main rotor helicopter tends to move in the direction of tail rotor thrust. This lateral movement is called
• Maximum brake speed for gross weight less than or equal to 8,900 lbs?
• TRUE/FALSE: When operating the heat system, ensure all lower duct heat air nozzles are completely open. Any other configuration may cause illumination of the HEATER O/HEAT warning light.
• Which pedal direction is used for antitorque control when the main rotor rotates clockwise as viewed from above?
• With NR HI switch on, airspeed is restricted to how many KIAS?
• A short in the Main DC Bus would cause which components to deenergize and illuminate which lights?
• Which action is described by note status of affected circuit breaker (out or in); no further action necessary?
• MGB Failure Imminent: Which corrective action is indicated?
• Under HIPSARM, for how many continuous minutes can AEO operations above MCP and up to MTOP be conducted?
• Whenever the helicopter descends below _______ ft radar altitude with the landing gear not down and locked, the L GEAR caution illuminates on the EICAS page and a CAWS voice alert will sound in the pilot and copilot headsets.
• During a powered landing with tail rotor malfunction and light weight on the wheels, which action may cause wheel lock and tire blowout?
• Which GOV LVL indicates a Level 2 FADEC failure on the EICAS page?
• In the warning range, the data display label and perimeter (box) will be ______________.
• Which option is NOT part of the transition point for a single engine minimum speed landing?
• If AFCS is coupled to the FD, torque limitations are applied to the FD system.
• The lift capability of the rotor system is limited by the actual collective stop and NR will not increase above ______ RPM in the Training Mode until the collective is reduced to a power level below the good engine topping.
• Which statement is true about Angle of Incidence and Angle of Attack?
• Which person is primarily responsible for briefing aircrew and passengers before and after a mission?
• Which Emergency Procedure is invoked when any engine data fault such as oil pressure or oil temperature fails to function?
• Which ULY factor includes tailwinds that can accelerate an established yaw rate to the left or to the right?
• Absolute VNE Power-On is what speed?
• The PIC shall ensure that all passengers embarked receive a/an ____________________.
• Whenever the helicopter descends below __________ ft radar altitude with the landing gear not down and locked, the L GEAR caution illuminates on the EICAS page and a CAWS voice alert will sound in the pilot and copilot headsets.
• TRUE/FALSE: During a Level 3 FADEC Failure, fuel flow on the affected engine will be frozen at its present value.
• In Unusual Attitude Recovery, what is the second action?
• TRUE/FALSE: Angle of Attack is a mechanical angle.
• Maximum landing speed is what in KGS?
• To recover from vortex ring state, which action sequence is recommended?
• The pilot shall initiate a shutdown if TOT rises rapidly and appears it will exceed what temperature (hot start)?
• What is the rotor brake limit in RPM?
• This pedal feedback is exacerbated at what operating condition and may require up to how many pounds of force to hold heading or add additional right pedal?
• Which statement accurately describes vortex ring state behavior?
• At an airspeed of 120 KIAS, an angle of bank of 50 degrees has exceeded a limit.
• During rapid control inputs at high bank, momentary ______ may occur following illumination of the LIMIT light and SERVO LIMIT caution message on the EICAS page.
• Which action best summarizes the requirement for crew communications during critical phases?
• The downwind distance to turn to final in the normal pattern is 1500 ft. Which statement best describes when this distance is used?
• Which color indicates caution range on the data display label?
• _______________ and _______________ components are labeled conventionally, No. 1 for the left side and No. 2 for the right side.
• Tail rotor malfunction landings are to be conducted to what type of surface?
• Who is responsible for ensuring that aircrew and passengers are properly briefed prior to and following the mission?
• The NR switch should be in HI position when hover flight is greater than or equal to how many feet AGL/AWL?
• What are the three categories for vibrations?
• Practice single engine maneuvers can be completed single pilot as long as the pilot holds an aircraft commander designation. True or False?
• Both engines shall be started using the same what?
• The Pattern for Normal Approach line shows a KIAS range for the final approach. Which range is shown?
• The phrase to announce in the cockpit for inadvertent IMC is to say
• When cycling a circuit breaker, how long should you wait before resetting?
• To minimize exposure, what distance from the HF antenna should personnel maintain during HF operation?
• The term ABORT MISSION means the aircraft should not proceed on its assigned mission and may return to its recovery base. Which option confirms this meaning?
• The transition point includes a transition speed of what KIAS?
• The rotor brake may remain on for how many minutes when one engine operating and START R.BK switch is activated?
• Which drag develops from the frictional resistance of blades passing through the air and increases moderately with airspeed?
• Maximum Landing Light Extension Speed?
• What is the third item in the 200 ft Checklist?
• After how many consecutive rotor brake applications should you allow cooling time, and what is the cooling time?
• In an extremis safety scenario, the PM shall initiate the appropriate control input in lieu of the Two Challenge Rule. This is referred to as implementing which rule?
• Which sequence correctly lists the three corrective actions in their proper order?
• Gyroscopic precession is the resultant action or deflection of a spinning object when a force is applied and occurs approximately ______ in the direction of rotation from the point where the force is applied.
• Vortex ring state is generally caused by allowing the aircraft to descend into its own ______.
• Low Hover Single Engine maneuvers should be performed over what type of surface?
• As DA increases, the rotor system becomes ______ effective.
• To access Level 1 redundancy FADEC fault, which cockpit page must be used?
• N1 limit values change based on which two factors?
• The 2000 psi isolation valve is fail safe open, requires power to close it, and remains open unless an isolation occurs. Which psi rating applies to this valve?
• During preflight, the engine oil level should be between the bottom of the sight glass and the __ line if checking __ than 15 minutes after shutdown.
• Which action is recommended as part of retreating blade stall recovery?
• As DA increases, the helicopter will require ______ power to hover.
• The instrument scan in inadvertent IMC is intended to achieve what primary aim?
• Care shall be taken not to maneuver the aircraft into a critical condition in which power ______ exceeds power ______.
• A fully charged battery will power the DC system for approximately ______ . However, securing DC powered equipment may extend the battery life beyond ______.
• What is the required feet of straightaway for the transition point in a single engine minimum speed landing?
• Angle of Incidence is a/an (mechanical / aerodynamic) angle.
• The NR HI mode provides a greater margin for NR droop as well as ______.
• Which statement is true regarding battery life when DC powered equipment is secured?
• Which EICAS indication is associated with Level 2 FADEC failure?
• To maintain lateral CG limits, hovering is restricted to winds of 55 knots within 20 degrees of heading and 35 knots from all other directions. What are these wind limits?
• During preflight, which instrument is used to verify the engine oil level?
• The final corrective action for inadvertent IMC is to do what?
• During preflight, if checking more than 15 minutes after shutdown, engine oil level should be between which marks?
• The transition point for an elevated pad/pinnacle landing is how many feet above the landing spot?
• Which statement about ULY is true?
• Rapid lowering of the collective after touchdown may result in uncontrollable yaw to which direction?
• If NR is exactly 345 RPM, will an aural warning occur?
• What is the maximum duration allowed for starter cranking?
• If primary flight information is lost on the MFDs, which source can be referenced for airspeed, attitude, and heading?
• Use of HOV is limited to what altitude and speed?
• The Transition Point on a Normal Approach is how many feet AGL?
• Which component provides the alternate hydraulic pressure source to extend the landing gear after a secondary system malfunction?
• Disconnecting external DC power with the spike suppression switch in the START PROTECTION position will result in which event?
• TRUE/FALSE: If power to the isolation relay is secured via No. 2 DC bus short or securing the SEC HYD circuit breaker, the T/R isolation valve is deenergized CLOSED, and the 2,000 psi isolation is deenergized OPEN, all components running off the 2,000 psi system will continue to operate normally.
• Practice Tail rotor malfunctions require two pilots in the cockpit, one being an aircraft commander.
• High Wind Engine Start/Rotor engagement wind limits are described by which of the following options?
• Hatch locked in open position speeds (forward and sideward).
• Which statement best describes the effect of increasing density altitude on hover power and rotor efficiency?
• In vortex ring state, when the collective is raised, which portion grows and what is the effect on the descent rate?
• Low frequency vibrations usually manifest as a ____ vibration per revolution and emanate from the main rotor system.
• Which Page is the primary source for diagnosing and analyzing any warning, caution or advisory annunciation?
• TRUE/FALSE: When the LEFT or RIGHT fuel displays drop to zero pounds, the respective feed tank light will illuminate.
• Which drag component is primarily due to friction of the blade passing through air?
• Which action may extend the battery life beyond 30 minutes?
• Which bus is powered by the transformer rectifier for emergency DC power when the No. 2 AC system supplies power?
• A master WARNING light should be acknowledged by what action from any aircrew member detecting the warning?
• If operating above 8000 ft MSL, both boost pumps shall be on to prevent a possible feed tank failure. At what altitude should this be done?
• The ____________________ may be considered an extension of the flight controls when operating the HDG flight director mode.
• Is the rotor brake permissible to be used when both engines are operating?
• The transition point includes a straightaway distance of how many feet?
• With NR HI switch on, the angle of bank (AOB) is restricted to how many degrees?
• For IMC flight operations, what is the minimum SFI battery voltage required on CDU TDL 2/2 page?
• Level 3 FADEC failure is indicated with FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution along with red engine status light. Which option best describes this indication?
• Which rotor condition is listed as a factor contributing to retreating blade stall?
• Rapid control inputs during maneuvers at high angle of bank may cause momentary __________ following, or concurrently with, illumination of the LIMIT light, SERVO LIMIT caution message on the EICAS page, and audio tone.
• The lift capability of the rotor system is limited by which factor?
• In general, the ____________________ should handle any cockpit duty that may potentially distract the PF from concentration on flight control operations.
• What caution is shown on the EICAS page for a Level 1 FADEC failure?
• A FADEC overspeed safety feature will shut down an engine at what RPM, plus or minus what tolerance, and which rotor is involved?
• The word used to indicate a nonmandatory desire or preferred method of accomplishment is which?
• In the Ondeck procedure, which action is performed first?
• HIPSARM applies to which mission type?
• At what radar altitude does the L GEAR caution illuminate if the landing gear is not down and locked?
• Aural Warnings: NR greater than or equal to _______ RPM.
• What is the second item in the abbreviated Takeoff Checklist?
• A high-power HF radio operation may cause which of the following effects on the aircraft systems?
• For high wind starts, which option correctly states the wind limits within 45 degrees of heading and in other directions?
• Which warning would appear on EICAS for trapped fuel due to ejector or pump failure?
• What is the KIAS range associated with the Transition Point on Normal Approach?
• An entire TODD card need not be completed for time-sensitive missions, but the Aircraft Commander is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is operated within its performance envelope at all times.
• In hover mode, the wind information displayed will either represent winds captured as the aircraft decelerates through which KIAS or winds manually updated via CDU INDEX Progress page?
• During hover and transition flight below 80 KIAS, torque limit is what percent torque?
• The TRNG safety feature ensures the idled engine can provide power up to the ____ stop to prevent excessive NR droop below 320 RPM.
• The phrase LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE indicates what?
• During normal operation, the engine idles at ____ % N1.
• The alternate static pressure valve switches from which static pressure ports to which pressure in the event of icing or an obstruction?
• FADEC derated limits are used to prevent the use of which power setting during training?
• In ground effect, induced flow velocities are decreased, and as a result AOA is increased.
• In high-power HF radio operation, which of the following is a potential effect on the RADALT indicator?
• For NR HI, the bank angle limit is greater than how many degrees?
• For external load, the bank angle limit is greater than how many degrees?
• The safety feature built into the FADEC training logic ensures that the idled engine will provide power up to the actual ______ stop in NR mismanagement.
• The helicopter normally hovers with how many degrees nose up and how many degrees right wing down?
• Which level of FADEC failure corresponds to a GOV LVL 2 caution on the EICAS page?
• In hover flight, winds should not exceed how many knots?
• When the fuel quantity on the individual side drops to 100 lbs, the respective fuel quantity and tape will turn yellow.
• What term describes the differential lift between the advancing and retreating halves of the rotor disk due to different wind velocity across each half?
• NOTE: Consideration should be given to a post egress muster location in the event of an aircraft mishap. The crew should muster ____________________ whenever possible.
• Transition to Forward Flight: Once ETL is attained, adjust attitude to how many degrees nose down?
• If DC external power is used for the start, which condition about the spike suppression and AVIONICS switches is required?
• From a discharged state of 18 VDC, how many minutes of charging are required to achieve 30 minute backup capability?
• The aircrew brief prior to takeoff must be provided by which person or representative?
• A ULY condition can normally be differentiated from a loss of tail rotor thrust by the rate of yaw acceleration experienced.
• ULY is generally a result of a single aerodynamic factor.
• Which GOV LVL indicates a Level 2 FADEC failure on the EICAS page?
• Which recovery action corresponds to reducing the severity of the maneuver during retreating blade stall recovery?
• NR HI mode provides which advantage during demanding low-speed maneuvers?
• In vortex ring state, does turbulent airflow lead to a reduction in cyclic authority?
• Display of which warning light may indicate a fire hazard due to a bleed air leak?
• Which of the following correctly identifies the potential consequence of operating the HF radio at high power?
• Minimum of how many VDC is required for battery start?
• In the Emergency Egress sequence, which step corresponds to HARNESS?
• Induced Drag is generated by the airflow circulation around the rotor blade as it creates which force?
• Maximum brake speed for gross weight greater than 8,900 lbs?
• RADALT fluctuations may induce undesired collective movements via the FD and/or AFCS when using which operating modes?
• Which two components are conventionally labeled No. 1 for the left side and No. 2 for the right side?
• What is the Min Stabilized rotor RPM?
• TRUE/FALSE: Disconnecting external DC power with the spike suppression switch in the START PROTECTION position will result in a DC Bus Short.
• TRUE/FALSE: Placing the emergency electrical cutoff switch to CUTOFF removes power to the 2000 psi isolation valve, opening the valve.
• The Aerosonic Sensor Unit (ASU) of the SFI accepts pitot (total) and static pressure input from which Pitot/Static System?
• The 2000 psi isolation valve is fail safe open and remains open unless an isolation occurs. What happens when power is removed?
• TRUE or FALSE: In the absence of a landing criteria, the aircraft may continue the mission as appropriate.
• When the AFCS is coupled to the flight director, the flight director will command flight control movements without regard to aircraft limitations or operating altitude.
• Which CDU page is used to manually update hover wind information?
• The fuel quantity is determined at which attitude?
• What is the relative wind requirement to manipulate the training switch for the High Hover single engine maneuver?
• FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution indicates which of the following?
• 10% additional torque may be required for maneuvering and hovering with a ______ crosswind.
• What do the Digital Engine Control Units (DECUs) monitor?
• A transformer rectifier powered from the No. 2 AC system provides emergency DC power to the ________ if both starter / generators are inoperative.
• Engine Post Shutdown Fire: If TOT continues to rise or does not decrease after engine post shutdown fire, which action should be performed first?
• A Level ______ FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a GOV LVL 1 caution when the FADEC control switch is in the IDLE or OFF position.
• VNE is established for how many G in straight and level flight?
• Which statement is true about Level 3 FADEC failure with respect to the red engine status light?
• Which label is used for operating procedures that could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed?
• A maximum of how many consecutive cranking periods are allowed?
• What KIAS range is specified for the Pattern for Normal Approach?
• Which component monitors engine status and displays the FADEC mode through CAAS?
• Which ULY factor is described as the relationship between collective input and yaw of the aircraft?
• What equipment should be available for tail rotor malfunction landings?
• Which hydraulic pressures are indicated on the EICAS page?
• Which vibration level would be described as moderate?
• If power to the isolation relay is secured via No. 2 DC bus short or securing the SEC HYD circuit breaker, the T/R isolation valve is deenergized CLOSED, and the 2,000 psi isolation is deenergized OPEN, what is the expected operation of components powered by the 2,000 psi system?
• What distance must personnel stay away from the radome when the radar is operating?
• Who may perform the preflight walk-around inspection?
• Which indicator on the EICAS page indicates a drop in MGB oil pressure?
• Transition to Forward Flight: After ETL, adjust attitude to 8-10 degrees nose down and adjust the cyclic to continue the acceleration to which speed?
• During normal course of operations, if the PM challenges the actions or conditions of the PF and does not receive an appropriate acknowledgment after a second challenge, the PM shall ______________________________.
• What is the minimum crew requirement for external cargo operations in the right seat and cabin?
• Which action is described by the directive to note the status of the affected circuit breaker (out or in) with no further action?
• Which action is least aligned with the corrective actions?
• The maximum ramp weight is ______ lbs when the helicopter is static, being towed, or being ground taxied under its own power.
• The loss of the primary hydraulic system will result in pedal feedback.
• A transformer rectifier powered from the No. 2 AC system provides emergency DC power to the which bus if both starter / generators are inoperative?
• The electric pump provides an alternate source for secondary hydraulic pressure to which action after a secondary system malfunction?
• TRUE/FALSE: When coupled to the AFCS, the flight director will command flight control movements without regard to aircraft limitations or operating altitude.
• Failure of the left forward ejector, aft cell ejector or both boost pumps will result in trapped fuel and the only indication to the aircrew will be illumination of the corresponding _______ warning on the EICAS page.
• A vibration described as MODERATE would be described as which of the following in terms of impact?
• Which ULY factor is associated with tailwinds accelerating the yaw rate to the left or right, similar to weathercock behavior?
• The approach is normally entered on downwind at what height in feet HAT or higher?
• A Level ______ FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a GOV LVL 2 caution.
• Which combination describes the aerodynamic factors that can lead into vortex ring state?
• During inadvertent IMC, what should be established to ensure safe orientation and control?
• Which procedure involves pulling the affected circuit breaker, waiting 15 seconds, and then resetting it?
• If fire is not confirmed after assessment, what is the next action?
• When one or more of the parameters associated with an engine are in the caution range, the data display label and perimeter (box) will be ______________.
• What is the nominal hydraulic pressure for both the primary and secondary circuits?
• The lift capability of the rotor system is limited by the actual collective stop and NR will not increase above ______ RPM in the Training Mode until the collective is reduced to a power level below the good engine topping.
• How is reviewing the Emergency Operating Procedures described when completing noncritical corrective actions?
• Which Emergency Procedure is invoked when SFI attitude differs from the PFD attitude, or a Red X appears on SFI attitude, altitude, or heading?
• The electric pump also provides an alternate source for secondary hydraulic pressure to which action after a secondary system malfunction?
• In the case of a shorted _______________, the respective line contactor and battery relay will deenergize and illuminate the associated battery relay OPEN light and generator FAIL light.
• In hover, the helicopter tends to drift laterally due to tail rotor thrust. This lateral movement is called
• The BATT RLY 2 indicator extinguishes to indicate parallel operation when which condition is met?
• Level 3, or major FADEC failure is indicated on the EICAS page with a FADEC1/FADEC2 FAIL caution along with illumination of the red ____________________.
• Oil temperature and pressure during start: what are the minimum oil temperature, maximum pressure without damage, and action for exceedance?
• If the SFI battery voltage is below which value will charging not occur and maintenance action is required?
• Aircrew shall not use the ____________________ if a Level 1 FADEC failure is noted.
• In a touch-and-go pattern over land, which checklists are required?
• TRUE/FALSE: When the LEFT or RIGHT fuel displays drops to zero pounds, the respective feed tank light will illuminate.
• The loss of the primary hydraulic system will result in pedal feedback. True or False?
• What action should be taken if there are moderate vibrations?
• A safety feature allows the idled engine to reach which stop in NR mismanagement, per FADEC training logic?
• Altitude loss with the Training Mode is greater than with an actual engine failure due to FADEC derated limits which are used to prevent:
• Operating which radio in high power may result in Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)?
• Pedal feedback is exacerbated at which setting and may require up to 70 pounds of force to hold heading or add additional right pedal?
• True or False: The initial action for inadvertent IMC is to announce the condition.